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11302007 05:46 AM 10 years ago  Post 21 
eggmcmuffinplz rrElite Veteran Â Â Â  there for, b=0  

11302007 05:55 AM 10 years ago  Post 22 
legoman67 rrElite Veteran Nanoose Bay B.C, Canada  i end up with b = a which is correct....he soved the problem harder then he needed too..equiva * a * b * b = a * a * a * ba,a,b are on both so they cross out/cancel out, leaving with b = adivide by 1 and you get a = b  

11302007 06:14 AM 10 years ago  Post 23 
dkshema rrMaster Cedar Rapids, IA  helibill wins because he got the answer first. There's no need to talk about dividing by zero or black magic.a^2  b^2 = a^2 abSubtract a^2 from both sides of the equal sign. A legal operation  you can do whatever you want to the left side of the equal sign as long as you do exactly the same thing to the other side. Subtracting "a squared" from both sides is correct.It leaves:b^2 = abdivide both sides by b. A legal operation, as you are doing the same thing to both sides of the equal sign, dividing by "b".leaves b = aand as stated initially, a = b = 1and of course, simply plugging 1 in for a and b in the original equation yields:1^2  1^2 = 1^2  1*11  1 = 1  10 = 0Wow. No rocket science here, simple math. Not even a trick.  

11302007 06:20 AM 10 years ago  Post 24 
EvoFlight50 rrApprentice Southbury, CT  You guys aren't answering the question though. The question is look at the problem and find out what he did wrong algebraically. It's not solve it a different way to show it's wrong. Obviously we can plug 1 into the regular equation, or start subtracting stuff from each side right off the bat.The question want's to know what he did wrong algebraically.  

11302007 06:44 AM 10 years ago  Post 25 
dkshema rrMaster Cedar Rapids, IA  BTW. If you start with the assumption that a = b = 1, then the trick step of divding both sides by (ab) blows the whole thing. That's where the trick division by zero comes into play.It's the initial assumption that bites you in the trick step of dividing both sides.  

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